Qbase anaesthesia pdf

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have these limitations have been static. In the UK, financial awards are of course much lower than in the US, limited by judicial standards, and solicitors fees are. Cambridge Core - Anesthesia, Intensive Care, Pain Management - QBase Anaesthesia - by Colin Pinnock. QBase Anaesthesia. QBase . PDF; Export citation. PDF | On Mar 1, , Goetz Bosse and others published Fundamentals of Anaesthesia and QBase Anesthesia 6.

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QBase: Anaesthesia: 3. E Hammond, Andrew McIndoe. Greenwich Medical Media, £, pp ISBN 1 Rating: (books , CDs 55). QBase Anaesthesia by, May 30, , Greenwich Medical Media edition, Paperback in English. QBase Anaesthesia_ Volume 3, MCQs in Medicine for the FRCA (v. 3).pdf . Anesthesia--Examinations, questions, etc. QBase Anaesthesia on CD- ROM.

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The Royal College of Anaesthetists, the professional body responsible for the specialty of anesthesia throughout the United Kingdom, includes a question multiple choice test as part of its final fellowship examination.

This book, intended as a study guide in preparation for the FRCA Fellowship of the Royal College of Anaesthetists , is designed for the physician preparing for this test. The book includes well-written questions with explanations on a broad range of topics in anesthesia. The book includes five tests, each with 60 questions. Each question is structured as a five-part true-and-false, with penalties for answering questions incorrectly.

An answer key with explanations then follows at the end of each test. The CD-ROM includes the same questions as the book, with an additional option to help a test taker determine an optimal selection strategy. Most other board review books like those by Hall and Chu have been designed with the frequently recurring topics on the American boards in mind, making them high-yield reviews for American students of anesthesia.

This book has been designed with a similar purpose, but for the British board exams.

Pdf qbase anaesthesia

The topics do generally mirror those of the American test, with normal physiology, pathophysiology, machines, cardiology, obstetrics, pain, regional, physics, and pharmacology all well represented.

Pediatrics is somewhat underemphasized on these tests compared with the American test. This tends to make the questions difficult to follow at best, and at worst virtually useless for preparation for American boards. For example, the book commonly refers to named devices and techniques that are seldom mentioned in literature familiar to American residents such as the Benedict Roth spirometer or the Bryce-Smith tube. It features questions on drugs that have fallen out of favor in the United States, such as enflurane, and on tests and algorithms that are rarely used in the Unite States, such as the Goldman cardiac risk index, even though the index was developed in America.

This is not to say the book is badly written; on the contrary, it does have value as a clinical review for an anesthesia practitioner. The questions cover a broad variety of topics and each question comes with a thorough explanation of the reasoning behind the answers.

However, this reviewer cannot recommend this book for written board preparation for a student taking the American anesthesia boards. You may be trying to access this site from a secured browser on the server. Please enable scripts and reload this page.

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For more information, please refer to our Privacy Policy. Subscribe to eTOC. Q23 eb Qbase Anaesthesia: This netLibrary eBook does not include the ancillary media that was packaged with the original printed version of the book.

Enquiries concerning reproduction outside the terms stated here should be sent to the publishers at the London address printed above. The publishers make no representation, express or implied, with regard to the accuracy of the information contained in this book and cannot accept any legal responsibility or liability for any errors or omissions that may be made.

QBase Anaesthesia (May 30, edition) | Open Library

A catalogue record for this book is available from the British library. QBase 3: It allows the candidate to generate customised exams for revision or assessment purposes. Do not be disheartened. Candidates should remember that knowledge and technique act synergistically to improve scores. They broadly cover the subject of General Medicine with a bias towards areas particularly relevant to anaesthesia.

Many have found revising for the General Medicine component of the examination difficult. The Questions have designed to assist your revision of this vast topic rather than just test your knowledge. Whilst not a substitute for knowledge and adequate preparation. They are aimed at the level of knowledge an SHO might be expected to achieve after completing six months of general medicine.

From a statistical viewpoint. Candidates specialising in intensive care medicine may find these questions a useful refresher for their general medical knowledge.

This may significantly improve an individual's performance in the MCQ section of the examination. The Questions are provided with comprehensive explanations and references for further reading. Some questions are more difficult than others. Candidates are consistently surprised at the positive benefits of their educated and wild guesses. This CD will update previous versions of QBase. Furthermore the system provides detailed structured analysis of performance and exam technique using the unique "Confidence Option" facility.

It should be used repeatedly to improve exam technique. It is said that the use of negative marking discourages guessing and that candidates fail by answering too many questions. The MCQ paper is perceived as a threatening test of breadth of knowledge. Our experience in teaching MCQ technique to candidates suggests that the advice "do not guess" is not correct.

This latest version of the program contains improvements in the exam analysis functions. These allow you to review your performance based on all the questions in the exam or by subject allowing you to identify areas that need further revision. This also allows you to see whether your technique varies with the subject of the question. If you reinstall QBase from this CD see back of book for instructions it will update previous version of the program. Owners of previous QBase titles will then have all the new functions available to them.

All QBase CDs will work with the new program. To check for successful installation of the new program, look at the Quick Start Menu screen. It should have 6 exam buttons. Exam 6 will be used by QBase titles containing the appropriate predefined examination. Many of you have requested shorter examinations. The exams directory on this CD contains a large number of predefined examinations. To access these exams, go to the Main Menu screen and select the 'Resit exam' option.

From the dialogue box that appears, select the exam directory on your CD drive and then the exam you wish to attempt. The table that follows gives details of the exams available.

You can save the exam to your hard disk as normal. To further enhance your revision, instead of selecting the 'Resit exam' button, we suggest you select the 'Resit shuffled exam' button. The leaves within each question will be randomly shuffled removing your ability to remember the pattern of the answers rather than the facts.

The questions in these exams follow the order in the book. The Autoset an exam option on this CD selects questions from only some of the subjects.

The 6 predefined exams on this CD are constructed in this way. You can generate your own customised exams using the "Create your own exam" option. We have provided the revision exams details below to allow you to do all the questions in the book without repetition.

We hope that you will find these notes, suggestions and improvements in the program useful in your preparation for the exam. Don't be discouraged if you only achieve a low overall score at first. The standard of the questions probably exceeds that required of the average anaesthetic trainee sitting the Final FRCA. However the material covered is highly relevant and should also assist your clinical practice.

Exams included in the exams directory of QBase 3 Exam name No. Cardiology Question 1 The following features are characteristic of Fallot's tetralogy A.

A loud pan-systolic murmur B. A loud first heart sound C.

QBase Anaesthesia

Fixed splitting of the second heart sound D. Increasing incidence with increasing maternal age Question 2 Recognised causes of secondary hypertension include A. Acromegaly B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Pregnancy D. Persistent ductus arteriosus E. Primary hyperaldosteronism Question 3 The following drugs are known to cause a prolonged QT interval A.

Amitryptilline B. Chlorpropramide C.

Anaesthesia pdf qbase

Sotalol D. Disopyramide E. Digoxin Question 4 Regarding aortic stenosis A. An ejection click is common in calcific aortic stenosis B. Subvalvular stenosis is not associated with aortic regurgitation C. In supravalvular stenosis, the facies may be characteristic D.

May be a cause of unequal upper limb pulses E. Normal coronary arteries should prompt a search for a non-cardiac cause for chest pain. Question 5 When a patent ductus arteriosus is diagnosed following delivery A. An ejection systolic murmur is heard B. Blood flow is usually left to right C. Closure is encouraged by an increase in the PaO2 D. Indomethacin may be used to help close the duct E. Prostacyclin keeps the duct open Question 6 Pulmonary hypertension is associated with A.

An increased frequency in men if the aetiology is unknown B. Left atrial myxoma C. A loud second heart sound D. Sickle cell disease E. Anaemia B. Mitral stenosis D. Hypoglycaemia E. Malignant hyperthermia Question 8 Procedural antibiotic prophylaxis is required in patients with A. Aortic valve replacement B.

Mitral valve prolapse C. Previous history of infective endocarditis D. Ostium secundum ASD E. Mitral stenosis Question 9 Bicuspid aortic valves A. Are associated with coarctation of the aorta B. Calcification is uncommon C. Incompetence is more common than stenosis D.

Are associated with Turner's syndrome E. Are a feature of Marfan's syndrome. Question 10 Features of acute cardiac tamponade include A. Ascites B. Hypotension C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Loud heart sounds E. Distended pulmonary veins Question 11 In constrictive pericarditis A. Ascites is often out of proportion to the degree of dependent oedema B. Pedal oedema is a prominent feature C. Atrial fibrillation is a common finding D.

A pansystolic murmur which increases on inspiration is characteristic E. Prominent 'v' waves are present in the neck Question 12 With reference to congenital heart lesions A.

ASD is the most common lesion B. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in females D. Fallot's has a higher than normal incidence in first degree relatives Question 13 In the sick sinus syndrome A. Atrial fibrillation is rare B. A pacemaker is seldom required C. Acute MI is the commonest cause of death D.

Syncopal attacks are the commonest presentation E. Atrial flutter B. Atrial fibrillation C. Nodal tachycardia D. Ventricular tachycardia E. Question 15 In infective endocarditis A. Bacteria are commonly found in the kidney B. Renal lesions are due to glomerulonephritis C. Frank haematuria suggests an unrelated cause D. Renal involvement is associated with a poor prognosis E.

Persistent hypocomplementaemia is the rule Question 16 Pulmonary hypertension A. Causes wide splitting of S2 B. Is a cause of the Graham-Steele murmur C.

Can cause peripheral cyanosis D. Is a cause of atrial fibrillation E. Cerebral aneurysms B. Bicuspid pulmonary valve C. VSD D. Patent ductus arteriosus E. Clubbing is apparent from birth B. It is the commonest form of cyanotic congenital heart disease C.

Squatting reduces the cyanosis D. It characteristically has a stenotic overriding aorta E. Beta-blockers have a useful therapeutic role Question 19 The following are associated with aortic regurgitation A. Coarctation of the aorta B. Syphilis C. Hypertension D. Ankylosing spondylitis E. Marfan's syndrome. Clubbing commonly occurs E. Soft heart sound in the pulmonary area E. Hodgkin's disease E.

Patient symptoms E. SLE D. Coxsackie B virus infection B. Degree of left ventricular enlargement B. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy C. Clubbing D. Apical late diastolic murmur Question 24 The severity of mitral stenosis can be judged by A. Wide pulse pressure C. Chronic renal failure Question 23 The following are recognised features of an uncomplicated patent ductus arteriosus A. There is an overall female preponderance C.

Proximity of opening snap to the second heart sound D. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in males D. Down's syndrome is associated with endomyocardial cushion defects Question 22 Recognised causes of a pericardial effusion include A. Cyanosis B. Length of the diastolic murmur C. Irregular cannon waves suggest complete heart block E. Large 'a' wave in the JVP trace C.

Raised systolic blood pressure D. Dyspnoea B. Ventricular tachycardia C. A permanent pacemaker should always be used in asymptomatic broad complex complete heart block C. Diphtheria can produce a narrow complex complete heart block B. Reversed limb lead E. Cyanosis E.

Patients with second degree block are usually asymptomatic Question 27 The following suggest predominant incompetence in mixed mitral valve disease A. A fall in BP on exercise suggests severe coronary artery disease D. Nodal rhythm D. Atrial fibrillation E. Gallop rhythm Question 29 In a patient with ischaemic heart disease A. Dyspnoea following prolonged angina suggests severe left ventricular disease B.

Dextrocardia B. Presence of a third heart sound D. Tachycardia induced by pacing is more likely to produce pain than exercise E. Left parasternal heave Question 28 The following signs are characteristic of a pulmonary embolus PE A. Loud first heart sound C. Decreasing PR interval suggests Wenckebach's phenomenon D. An atrial sound may be audible only during an attack of angina C.

Atypical chest pains E. Terfenadine C. Astemizole D. Infective endocarditis C. Supraventricular ectopics D. Indolent infection late after cardiac surgery is often due to infection with Staphylococcus aureus D. Digoxin-like substances secreted by the placenta may interfere with digoxin assays during pregnancy E. Is not known to be teratogenic D.

Hypermagnesaemia E. May be used for the control of fetal arrhythmias in pregnancy C. Enterococci are highly sensitive to penicillins B. Anticoagulation is indicated to reduce the risk of emboli when large vegetations are present E. Pericarditis Question 33 Digoxin A. Streptococcus bovis is frequently associated with lesions in the bowel C.

Has been proven to prolong survival in patients with chronic heart failure B. Bradycardia Question 32 Recognised complications of mitral valve prolapse include A. Erythromycin therapy B. Mycotic aneurysms may rupture after complete eradication of infection Question 31 The prolonged repolarisation syndrome may be associated with the following A.


Exercise-induced ventricular arrhythmias B. Tricuspid regurgitation D. Sotalol E. Hypokalaemia C. Left axis deviation of the ECG C. Hypertension B. Hyperkalaemia E. Hypercalcaemia B. Chlorpromazine Question 35 The following factors predispose to the development of dissecting aortic aneurysm A. Hypokalaemia B. Aminophylline D. Hypoxia B. Hypothyroidism E. Hypomagnesaemia Question 38 Findings in a patient with emphysema and cor pulmonale include A. Pregnancy Question 36 Metabolic predispositions to digoxin toxicity include A.

Marfan's syndrome C. Hypercholesterolaemia D. Hypocalaemia D. Hypermagnesaemia C. Large 'a' wave in the JVP E. Hypocalcaemia D. Hypothermia B.

Bicuspid aortic valve E. Has no active metabolites Question 43 The first heart sound A. Is used in the treatment of angina E. Occurs earlier in diastole the more severe the degree of stenosis Question 40 Nicorandil A. Varies in position with respiration E. Is a potassium channel inhibitor B. Is safe in patients taking amiloride E.

May be associated with thiamine deficiency C. Is an Angiotensin II receptor antagonist B. Is absolutely contraindicated in the presence of beta-blockers D. Produces reduced renin activity C. Is a recognised cause of sudden death B. Has a recognised association with ACE gene polymorphism E. Is loud in patients with thyrotoxicosis E. Is a low pitched sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope B.

Reduces preload and afterload C. Headaches may occur when treatment is started Question 41 Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy A. Is due to the closur of the mitral tricuspid valves C. Is commonly associated with mitral regurgitation D. Occurs at a variable distance from the second heart sound C. Represents the sudden opening of the mitral valve D.

Is usually split D. Is best heard at the left sternal edge B. Causes a dry cough similar to captopril D. Two perpendicular axes are required to represent the spatial vector D. Steep y descent is associated with tricuspid regurgitation E. Is twice as common in men as in women B. Is shortened in tricyclic poisoning E. Is associated with a pansystolic murmur D. Occurs in mitral incompetence Question 46 Coarctation of the aorta A. At the body surface. Steep x descent is associated with constrictive pericarditis D.

May be associated with webbing of the neck C. Is caused by ventricular myocardial repolarisation B. Is a normal finding in children and young adults C. It represents the vector sum of the depolarization potentials of all myocardial cells B. The normal value is usually less than 3 cm of water C. Will normally contain a Q-wave up to half the height of the R-wave C.

Is referred to as the sound of cardiac distress D. May be used to assess rotation of the heart along its longitudinal axis Question 45 The third heart sound A. Is due to rapid ventricular filling B. It is usually measured from the sternal notch B. The diastolic potential difference is maintained by a high intracellular potassium concentration E.

Occurs immediately following mitral and tricuspid valve opening E. Corresponds with the phase ofisovolumetric contraction D. Nodal bradycardia E. P waves C. It represents ventricular repolarisation B. Wide QRS complex D. Long PR interval C. Long QT interval Question 51 In a patient with a broad complex tachycardia. May be a normal finding B. Is associated with ventricular septal defects D. Pulmonary stenosis Question 53 Right bundle branch block A.

Large patent ductus arteriosus E. It is normally less than 1mV in the standard leads C. Right bundle branch block C. Severe aortic stenosis D. Is associated with atrial septal defects C. Left bundle branch block B. Left axis deviation B. Digoxin toxicity is associated with increased T wave amplitude D. Results in a QRS duration of at least msec E. Capture beats D. J waves B. Secundum atrial septal defect C.

Is present in right ventricular failure C. Is associated with Torsades de Pointes tachycardia E. Atrial myxoma C. Occurs in pulmonary stenosis Question 57 Mid-diastolic murmurs occur in A.

Ventricular septal defect with normal pulmonary artery pressure D. Is associated with an abnormal pathway between atria and ventricles D. May be physiological B. Rheumatic fever E. Occurs in mitral stenosis D. Isolated aortic regurgitation E. Occurs late in diastole C. May occur in patients on chlorpromazine C.

May be associated with congenital deafness B. May be a normal finding in a person over 40 B. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic regurgitation Question 58 The following are likely to cause serious complications during pregnancy A. May indicate ventricular volume overload E. Is a recognised consequence of hypomagnesaemia Question 56 A fourth heart sound A. Occurs in acute mitral regurgitation D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Occurs in constrictive pericarditis E.

Broad QRS complex D. Occurs late in systole C. May be a normal finding in elderly patients D. Makes the shunt right to left. ACE inhibitors D. Is uncommon in Down's syndrome C. Murmur of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy B. Murmur of aortic stenosis D. Length of the murmur of mitral valve prolapse C. Short PR interval C. Fourth heart sound Question 60 Mortality in myocardial infarction is reduced by A.

Beta-blockers C. Produces a loud diastolic murmur Question 63 A fourth heart sound A.

[P.D.F] QBase Anaesthesia: Volume 1, MCQs for the Anaesthesia Primary: MCQs for the Primary FRCA

Nifedipine B. When large. Occurs in aortic incompetence B. Murmur of mitral regurgitation E. May be palpated E. Intravenous magnesium E. Occurring at approximately 1 in live births is the commonest congenital cardiac defect B. Normal P wave B. Accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles E. Left ventricular failure may be associated with reversed splitting E. Mean frontal QRS axis of 40 C. Only the pericardium is involved E.

Coarcation of the aorta may be associated with greater splitting of the sounds in expiration Question 68 The following are normal findings on the ECG A. Cerebral embolism in young adults Question 66 Constrictive pericarditis is associated with A. Affecting the heart. Peripheral oedema B.

A steep 'y' descent on JVP trace E. Right bundle branch block E. Atrial septal defects are associated with a widely split second heart sound C.

Tuberculosis Question 67 Concerning the second heart sounds A. Mitral valvulitis leads to a transient diastolic mitral Carey-Coombs murmur Question 65 Complications of mitral valve prolapse include A. Physiological splitting is associated with greater separation of the sounds during expiration B. PR interval of 0. Ventricular dysrhythmias D. Patients may develop a fleeting polyarthritis affecting the small joints B. Infective endocarditis E. A raised jugular venous pressure JVP C.

Reversed splitting occurs in right bundle branch block D. The causative bacterium is a group B Streptococcus D. Pericarditis B. Chest pain C. First degree heart block Question 72 Coronary artery stents A.

Require life-long anticoagulation D. Shortening of the corrected QT interval C. If no pre-excitation is seen on ECG during sinus rhythm. P-waves just after every QRS complex are diagnostic of ventricular tachycardia C. U waves E. T wave flattening D. Diarrhoea D. In a RBBB pattern tachycardia. Prolongation of the PR interval B. Prolongation of the R-R interval B.

Photophobia E. Prolongation of the QT interval C. Preclude the use of nuclear magnetic resonance imaging E. Subaortic stenosis C. Acute pulmonary embolism E. Dextrocardia Question 77 Regarding vagotonic manoeuvres in the presence of supraventricular arrhythmias A.

Valvular aortic stenosis D. It is important to maintain a normal to high mean arterial pressure following surgical correction D. Rheumatic fever is the most likely cause B. Arrhythmias involving circus movement may convert to sinus rhythm D. Right bundle branch block B. Right ventricular failure may develop E.

Ebstein's anomaly C. Pulmonary oedema may develop if the mitral valve orifice area is 1 cm2 D. There is a tendency to intracranial haemorrhage C. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure reflects left ventricular end diastolic pressure Question 75 Paradoxical splitting of the second heart sound is caused by A. Atrial flutter is a contraindication to valvotomy C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome D. The constriction is usually proximal to the origin of the left subclavian artery Question 74 In a 65 year old patient with mitral stenosis A.

Right sided carotid sinus massage generally impairs AV nodal conduction B. Renal hypoperfusion activates the renin-angiotensin system resulting in hypertension B. Hypertensive heart disease with LVF E. Ocular pressure is effective E.

Left sided carotid sinus massage generally slows the sinus rate C. Is associated with selenium deficiency E. Divides into the circumflex and marginal arteries D. Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia treated effectively with digoxin E.

Supplies the inferior aspect of the left ventricle B. Ventricular septal defect E. Severe aortic stenosis B. Increase in the QT interval C.

Right ventricular heave B. Mid-systolic ejection murmur in the pulmonary area E. Characteristic delta wave during tachydysrhythmias Question 82 The normal right coronary artery A. Occurring peripartum is associated with a high risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancy C.

Atrial septal defect D. Supplies the right ventricle and part of the septum E. Secondary to alcohol abuse presents predominantly with right heart failure B. Fixed splitting of the first heart sound D. Supplies the AV node C. Short PR interval B. Pulmonary venous plethora on the chest X-ray Question 79 Dilated cardiomyopathy A. Loud second heart sound C. Is associated with anthracycline therapy D. The c wave coincides with tricuspid valve closure C. Long PR interval Question 85 The following features distinguish an ostium primum from a secundum atrial septal defect A.

Right atrial enlargement on chest X-ray D. Raised serum immunoglobulins Question 84 Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is associated with A. Double apical impulse E. Systolic ejection murmur at the upper left sternal border B. The a wave coincides with the fourth heart sound B.

Systolic anterior motion of the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve B. The x descent is slowed in tricuspid stenosis E. Cannon waves are seen in tricuspid incompetence D. Slow rising pulse C. Apical systolic murmur D. Syncope B. Fixed split second heart sound C. Parasternal heave on palpation of the precordium Question 86 The following statements concerning the jugular venous pulse are correct A.

Left axis deviation on the ECG E. Systemic emboli E. Palpable fourth heart sound D. The P wave denotes sino-atrial activity B.

The heart is usually otherwise normal D. The radial pulse is usually regular or regularly irregular Question 88 In atrial fibrillation A. Non-sustained ventricular tachycardia is a marker for sudden death risk D. The femoral pulse is irregularly irregular B. There is usually a Q wave in V6 E. Patients are usually symptomatic D.

The genetic defect is a point mutation at a single locus on chromosome 14 B. Chronic alcohol abuse is a recognised cause E. Digoxin often conserts the rhythm to atrial fibrillation C. The atrial rate is about Question 89 In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy A. Carotid sinus massage usually slows the AV conduction E. The initial deflection inV1 is negative C.

The atrial rate is commonly bpm B. Dual chamber pacing can reduce the outflow tract gradient and improve symptoms C. Atrial repolarization is represented by a biphasic P wave in V1 C. Patients with recurrent VF may require implantation of a cardioverter defibrillator E. The T wave is negative in aVr D. The ECG shows 'f' waves C. Tricuspid atresia B.

Splitting of the second heart sound increases in expiration C. Sudden death is a recognised complication D. Ventricular and supraventricular tachydysrhythmias are equally common D. Digoxin is the treatment of choice C. There is a male preponderance B. The x descent is rapid in cardiac tamponade B. The physiological third heart sound is synchronous with the x descent E. Patent Ductus Arteriosus C. Antidromic tachycardia is more common than orthodromic Question 96 Cyanosis may be present in A.

There is often a history of rheumatic fever B. Eisenmenger's syndrome D. Ostium primum ASD E. The ventricular rate is usually slow if the patient is in AF B. The shunt is left to right D. If left uncorrected. Ebstein's anomaly may be an associated condition E. Inspection of the normal adult usually reveals a. The accessory pathway always links the right atrium and ventricle Question 93 Regarding the jugular venous pressure A. Regular cannon waves are seen in nodal tachycardia C.

Defects in the cardiac septa are common E. Pulmonary systolic murmur E. Mitral incompetence Question Features of digoxin toxicity include A. Pulmonary stenosis C. Hypokalaemia D.

Complete heart block D. T wave flatteningHypothyroidism C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Xanthopsia B. Tricuspid stenosis B. Right axis deviation C. U wavesHypothermia B. Wide splitting of the second heart sound B. Pulmonary hypertension E. T wave inversion E. Biphasic P wave in V1Mitral stenosis E. Gynaecomastia C. Is related to the azygous vein E. The trachea starts at the level of C6 and ends at T4 B. A right sided pneumothorax C. A massive left sided empyema E. Collapse of the left lung D.

There are 18 divisions between the trachea and the alveolus E. The left main bronchus passes under the aortic arch and is approximately 5 cm long C. Has one fissure B. Pores of Kohn allow communication between alveoli of adjoining lobules D. The FRC can be measured by spirometry C.

Has two pulmonary veins D. The peak flow rate is a measure of intrinsic airway disease D. Compliance must be measured dynamically E. Peak expiratory flow rate is correlated to age. Type I pneumocytes secrete surfactant Question The right lung A.

Has no Sibson's fascia C.

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